Showing posts with label Question Bank. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Question Bank. Show all posts

Wednesday, May 19, 2010

Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper 2008

0 comments

Allahabad Bank,which began operations in 1865, now has its head-quarters in Kolkata. Currently the bank has 2260 branches [1]  across the country. The Chairman and Managing Director of the bank is Shri J P Dua. The bank has a branch in Hong Kong and a representative office in Shenzen. The bank's internet banking is maintained by EBankWorks Team of TCS. 

Click Here to Download the Question Papers

Download1



Result of the Written Test held on 21.02.2010 for the post of Agriculture Field Officer
 

Click here for List of Candidates who have qualified for Interview

Click here for Biodata cum Declaration Form

TAGS: Allahabad Bank papers,Allahabad Bank,Allahabad Bank previous papers,Allahabad Bank exam papers,Allahabad Bank previus question papers,Allahabad Bank general english questions,Allahabad Bank Probationary papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary model papers,Allahabad Bank entrance exam papers,Allahabad Bank solved question papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary questions,Allahabad Bank solved papers,Allahabad Bank papers,Allahabad Bank,Allahabad Bank previous papers,Allahabad Bank exam papers,Allahabad Bank previus question papers,Allahabad Bank general english questions,Allahabad Bank Probationary papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary model papers,Allahabad Bank entrance exam papers,Allahabad Bank solved question papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary questions,Allahabad Bank solved papers,Allahabad Bank numarical analasys paper,Allahabad Bank model paper,Allahabad Bank reasoning,Allahabad Bank reasoning questions,Allahabad Bank 2008 paper

Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper 2008

0 comments

Allahabad Bank,which began operations in 1865, now has its head-quarters in Kolkata. Currently the bank has 2260 branches [1]  across the country. The Chairman and Managing Director of the bank is Shri J P Dua. The bank has a branch in Hong Kong and a representative office in Shenzen. The bank's internet banking is maintained by EBankWorks Team of TCS. 

Click Here to Download the Question Papers

Download1



Result of the Written Test held on 21.02.2010 for the post of Agriculture Field Officer
 

Click here for List of Candidates who have qualified for Interview

Click here for Biodata cum Declaration Form

TAGS: Allahabad Bank papers,Allahabad Bank,Allahabad Bank previous papers,Allahabad Bank exam papers,Allahabad Bank previus question papers,Allahabad Bank general english questions,Allahabad Bank Probationary papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary model papers,Allahabad Bank entrance exam papers,Allahabad Bank solved question papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary questions,Allahabad Bank solved papers,Allahabad Bank papers,Allahabad Bank,Allahabad Bank previous papers,Allahabad Bank exam papers,Allahabad Bank previus question papers,Allahabad Bank general english questions,Allahabad Bank Probationary papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary model papers,Allahabad Bank entrance exam papers,Allahabad Bank solved question papers,Allahabad Bank Probationary questions,Allahabad Bank solved papers,Allahabad Bank numarical analasys paper,Allahabad Bank model paper,Allahabad Bank reasoning,Allahabad Bank reasoning questions,Allahabad Bank 2008 paper

Monday, May 17, 2010

TamilNadu SSLC French -I June 2009 Question Paper Tamilnadu 10th Question Paper French -I June 2009

0 comments

Model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus Download » Full Software Downloads - Download For All
model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus search results, download model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus files from dl4all.com
model, question, paper, free, dowload, of, sslc, state, syllabus full software, free software, full download, free download, download, appz, mobile, utilities, windows, software, crack, audio, video, application, freeware, dl4all, download4all, antivirus, internetTamilNadu SSLC Question Paper
Tamilnadu 10th Question Paper
Tamilnadu Matriculation Question Paper
Tamilnadu ONGC Question Paper
Tamilnadu Matriculation Question Paper
How To Get SSLC State Board Question Paper For TamilNadu?
2007 Tamil Nadu State TAMIL QUESTION PAPERS OF SSLC EXAMINATION Question paper
10th Std Question Papers – Tamilnadu SSLC Questions
Tamilnadu 10th Standard SSLC Questions
1.  10th Maths Free questions
2. 10th Biology Free Questions
Click Here to download the Question

TamilNadu SSLC French -I June 2009 Question Paper Tamilnadu 10th Question Paper French -I June 2009

0 comments

Model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus Download » Full Software Downloads - Download For All
model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus search results, download model question paper free dowload of sslc state syllabus files from dl4all.com
model, question, paper, free, dowload, of, sslc, state, syllabus full software, free software, full download, free download, download, appz, mobile, utilities, windows, software, crack, audio, video, application, freeware, dl4all, download4all, antivirus, internetTamilNadu SSLC Question Paper
Tamilnadu 10th Question Paper
Tamilnadu Matriculation Question Paper
Tamilnadu ONGC Question Paper
Tamilnadu Matriculation Question Paper
How To Get SSLC State Board Question Paper For TamilNadu?
2007 Tamil Nadu State TAMIL QUESTION PAPERS OF SSLC EXAMINATION Question paper
10th Std Question Papers – Tamilnadu SSLC Questions
Tamilnadu 10th Standard SSLC Questions
1.  10th Maths Free questions
2. 10th Biology Free Questions
Click Here to download the Question

Thursday, April 29, 2010

Java Interview Question:Frequently Asked Questions About Java

0 comments

Java Interview Question:Frequently Asked Questions About Java
Question: What is the difference between an Interface and an Abstract class?
Question: What is the purpose of garbage collection in Java, and when is it used?
Question: Describe synchronization in respect to multithreading.
Question: Explain different way of using thread?
Question: What are pass by reference and passby value?
Question: What is HashMap and Map?
Question: Difference between HashMap and HashTable?
Question: Difference between Vector and ArrayList?
Question: Difference between Swing and Awt?

For more Question click here to Download

Download1




Java Interview Question:Frequently Asked Questions About Java

0 comments

Java Interview Question:Frequently Asked Questions About Java
Question: What is the difference between an Interface and an Abstract class?
Question: What is the purpose of garbage collection in Java, and when is it used?
Question: Describe synchronization in respect to multithreading.
Question: Explain different way of using thread?
Question: What are pass by reference and passby value?
Question: What is HashMap and Map?
Question: Difference between HashMap and HashTable?
Question: Difference between Vector and ArrayList?
Question: Difference between Swing and Awt?

For more Question click here to Download

Download1




Wednesday, March 24, 2010

Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Model Question Paper Answer

0 comments

Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Question Paper

1. ?Abhinav Bharat? was organized by
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) Vir Savarkar

2. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the
largest day and shortest night ?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Chennai
Ans: ( a ) Melbourne

3. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ?Horse
Latitudes? lies between
(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350

4. Zimbobwe was formerly known as
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia

5. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Bonn - Danube
(b) Baghdad - Tigris
(c) Rome - Seice
(d) Paris - Tiber
Ans: ( b ) Baghdad - Tigris

6. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal

7. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at
its mouth ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans: ( d ) Tapti

8. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab
Ans: ( c ) Jhelum

9. The Shompens are the tribal people of
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Nicobar

10. Match the following
A. Manas I. Hangul
B. Dachigam II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) I III IV II
Ans: ( b ) III I II IV

11. In India, Plan holiday was after
(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965
Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966

12. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum

13. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3,
4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600

12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee
notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of
notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans: ( b ) 90

13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are
matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and
remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are
graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans: ( c ) 180

14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a
Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus

15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union
Territories may be established by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law

16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser
to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau
Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau

17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of
architecture first developed in
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans: ( a ) Italy

18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the
revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans: ( d ) East Bengal

19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu
Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars

20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4
months every year is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: ( c ) Mizoram

21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Gulbarga - Karnataka
(b) Midnapur - Gujarat
(c) Wardha - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin - Tamil Nadu
Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga - Karnataka

22. U Thant Award is given for
(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism
Ans: ( c ) Social service

23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans: ( a ) South Africa

24. The first electric railway was opened in
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans: ( d ) 1925

25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the
following games ?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Snooker

26. ?The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar
award in how many categories ?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: ( c ) 11

27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has
the lowest density of population ?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans: ( d ) Mizoram

28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim
Ans: ( c ) Arjun

29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Encephalitis - Brain
(b) Colitis - Colon
(c) Hepatitis - Liver
(d) Jaundice - Throat
Ans: ( d ) Jaundice - Throat

30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured
by using petroleum products ?
(a) Rayan Silk
(b) Terelyne
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton
Ans: ( c ) Nylon

31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is
(a) Transport of oxygen
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans: ( a ) Transport of oxygen

32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers
as compared to urban population ?
(a) Lung?s disease
(b) Cirrhasis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans: ( c ) Hookworm infection

33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in
which of the following crops ?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these

34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans: ( c ) Peanuts

35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that
bears seeds but not fruits ?
(a) Cotton Plant
(b) Peepal tree
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans: ( c ) Eucalyptus tree

36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large
reserves in India is
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans: ( b ) Thorium

37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans: ( b ) Real and inverted

38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in
the human body are
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans: ( a ) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus

39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans: ( c ) Silver bromide

40. Protective foods in our diet are
(a) Fats and vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates and minerals
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Proteins and carbohydrates
Ans: ( d ) Proteins and carbohydrates

41. The ancient name of Bengal was
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(c) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans: ( c ) Gauda

42. Ahilyabai was the queen of
(a) Gwaliar
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans: ( a ) Gwaliar

43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the
time of
(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq
Ans: ( d ) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq

44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that
the main occupation of the people was
(a) Agriculture
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Commerce
(d) Hunting
Ans: ( c ) Commerce

45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of
????????. Dynasty
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallava
(d) Kushana
Ans: ( c ) Pallava

46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was
opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853

47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called
(a) Mahabhiniskraman
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mahamastakabhisheka
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans: ( d ) Dharmachakrapravartan

48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans: ( b ) Madurai

49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties
in which they invaded India ?
1. Huns 2. Kushanas
3. Aryans 4. Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: ( b ) 3, 4, 2, 1

50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghvarsa
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans: ( c ) Vijnaneswara

51. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a
consequence of
(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids
Ans: ( c ) Hun invasion

52. Who founded the Hindu Shahi dynasty of Punjab ?
(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala
Ans: ( c ) Jayapala

53. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was
posed by the
(a) Mughals
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these

54. Who among the following was a leading exponent of
Gandhian thoughts ?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M. N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: ( c ) Vinoba Bhave

55. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial
Mauryas in Magadha ?
(a) Kushanas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas
Ans: ( d ) Sungas

56. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of
(a) Ajatashatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday
Ans: ( b ) Bimbisara

57. Jahangiri Mahal is located in
(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara
Ans: ( c ) Agra Fort

58. The percentage of glucose present in the normal urine is
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%
Ans: ( a ) 0.1%

59. The magnetic effect of electric current was first
observed by
(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta
Ans: ( b ) Oersted

60. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves
constitute approximately
(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans: ( b ) 2.7%

61. The black hole theory was discovered by
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujan
Ans: ( a ) S. Chandrasekhar

62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field
of administration lies in
(a) Systematic provincial administration
(b) A well planned revenue system
(c) A well organized central government
(d) An organized local self government
Ans: ( d ) An organized local self government

63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans: ( d ) Ballabhacharya

64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a
Mughal ruler of India ?
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans: ( b ) Panipat II

65. ?The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: ( b ) Swami Dayanand

66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west
through
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sind
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: ( b ) Sind

67. Which was the first among the following ?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans: ( d ) Double Government

68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans: ( d ) Permanent settlement

69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with
(a) Administrative reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) Economic reforms
(d) Educational reforms
Ans: ( d ) Educational reforms

70. The sea route to India was discovered by the
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans: ( c ) Portuguese

71. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan
(c) Harisena - Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta
Ans: ( b ) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan

72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because
(a) Battle of Plassey started
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans: ( d ) American Congress adopted the Declaration of
Independence

73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 192
(d) 1923
Ans: ( b ) 1919

74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through
which of the following acts ?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) 1909


Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Model Question Paper Answer:RRB Question Papers,Government exam paper,RRB Paper,RRB exam paper

Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Model Question Paper Answer

0 comments

Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Question Paper

1. ?Abhinav Bharat? was organized by
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) Vir Savarkar

2. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the
largest day and shortest night ?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Chennai
Ans: ( a ) Melbourne

3. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ?Horse
Latitudes? lies between
(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350

4. Zimbobwe was formerly known as
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia

5. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Bonn - Danube
(b) Baghdad - Tigris
(c) Rome - Seice
(d) Paris - Tiber
Ans: ( b ) Baghdad - Tigris

6. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal

7. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at
its mouth ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans: ( d ) Tapti

8. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab
Ans: ( c ) Jhelum

9. The Shompens are the tribal people of
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Nicobar

10. Match the following
A. Manas I. Hangul
B. Dachigam II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) I III IV II
Ans: ( b ) III I II IV

11. In India, Plan holiday was after
(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965
Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966

12. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum

13. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3,
4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600

12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee
notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of
notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans: ( b ) 90

13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are
matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and
remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are
graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans: ( c ) 180

14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a
Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus

15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union
Territories may be established by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law

16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser
to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau
Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau

17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of
architecture first developed in
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans: ( a ) Italy

18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the
revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans: ( d ) East Bengal

19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu
Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars

20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4
months every year is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: ( c ) Mizoram

21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Gulbarga - Karnataka
(b) Midnapur - Gujarat
(c) Wardha - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin - Tamil Nadu
Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga - Karnataka

22. U Thant Award is given for
(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism
Ans: ( c ) Social service

23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans: ( a ) South Africa

24. The first electric railway was opened in
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans: ( d ) 1925

25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the
following games ?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Snooker

26. ?The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar
award in how many categories ?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: ( c ) 11

27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has
the lowest density of population ?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans: ( d ) Mizoram

28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim
Ans: ( c ) Arjun

29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Encephalitis - Brain
(b) Colitis - Colon
(c) Hepatitis - Liver
(d) Jaundice - Throat
Ans: ( d ) Jaundice - Throat

30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured
by using petroleum products ?
(a) Rayan Silk
(b) Terelyne
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton
Ans: ( c ) Nylon

31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is
(a) Transport of oxygen
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans: ( a ) Transport of oxygen

32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers
as compared to urban population ?
(a) Lung?s disease
(b) Cirrhasis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans: ( c ) Hookworm infection

33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in
which of the following crops ?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these

34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans: ( c ) Peanuts

35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that
bears seeds but not fruits ?
(a) Cotton Plant
(b) Peepal tree
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans: ( c ) Eucalyptus tree

36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large
reserves in India is
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans: ( b ) Thorium

37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans: ( b ) Real and inverted

38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in
the human body are
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans: ( a ) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus

39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans: ( c ) Silver bromide

40. Protective foods in our diet are
(a) Fats and vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates and minerals
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Proteins and carbohydrates
Ans: ( d ) Proteins and carbohydrates

41. The ancient name of Bengal was
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(c) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans: ( c ) Gauda

42. Ahilyabai was the queen of
(a) Gwaliar
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans: ( a ) Gwaliar

43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the
time of
(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq
Ans: ( d ) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq

44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that
the main occupation of the people was
(a) Agriculture
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Commerce
(d) Hunting
Ans: ( c ) Commerce

45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of
????????. Dynasty
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallava
(d) Kushana
Ans: ( c ) Pallava

46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was
opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853

47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called
(a) Mahabhiniskraman
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mahamastakabhisheka
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans: ( d ) Dharmachakrapravartan

48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans: ( b ) Madurai

49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties
in which they invaded India ?
1. Huns 2. Kushanas
3. Aryans 4. Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: ( b ) 3, 4, 2, 1

50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghvarsa
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans: ( c ) Vijnaneswara

51. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a
consequence of
(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids
Ans: ( c ) Hun invasion

52. Who founded the Hindu Shahi dynasty of Punjab ?
(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala
Ans: ( c ) Jayapala

53. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was
posed by the
(a) Mughals
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these
Ans: ( d ) None of these

54. Who among the following was a leading exponent of
Gandhian thoughts ?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M. N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: ( c ) Vinoba Bhave

55. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial
Mauryas in Magadha ?
(a) Kushanas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas
Ans: ( d ) Sungas

56. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of
(a) Ajatashatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday
Ans: ( b ) Bimbisara

57. Jahangiri Mahal is located in
(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara
Ans: ( c ) Agra Fort

58. The percentage of glucose present in the normal urine is
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%
Ans: ( a ) 0.1%

59. The magnetic effect of electric current was first
observed by
(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta
Ans: ( b ) Oersted

60. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves
constitute approximately
(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans: ( b ) 2.7%

61. The black hole theory was discovered by
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujan
Ans: ( a ) S. Chandrasekhar

62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field
of administration lies in
(a) Systematic provincial administration
(b) A well planned revenue system
(c) A well organized central government
(d) An organized local self government
Ans: ( d ) An organized local self government

63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans: ( d ) Ballabhacharya

64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a
Mughal ruler of India ?
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans: ( b ) Panipat II

65. ?The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand
(d) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: ( b ) Swami Dayanand

66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west
through
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sind
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: ( b ) Sind

67. Which was the first among the following ?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans: ( d ) Double Government

68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans: ( d ) Permanent settlement

69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with
(a) Administrative reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) Economic reforms
(d) Educational reforms
Ans: ( d ) Educational reforms

70. The sea route to India was discovered by the
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans: ( c ) Portuguese

71. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan
(c) Harisena - Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta
Ans: ( b ) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan

72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because
(a) Battle of Plassey started
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans: ( d ) American Congress adopted the Declaration of
Independence

73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 192
(d) 1923
Ans: ( b ) 1919

74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through
which of the following acts ?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) 1909


Railway Recruitment Board Examination, January 2005 Model Question Paper Answer:RRB Question Papers,Government exam paper,RRB Paper,RRB exam paper

Thursday, March 18, 2010

CS 1020 Software Quality Management Question Bank/2 mark Questions,16 mark Questions

0 comments


ANNA UNIVERSITY CHENNAI
CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT IMPORTANT 2 MARKS AND 16 MARKS
SEMESTER VIII/08
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT CODE: CS 1020 YEAR : IV
SUBJECT NAME: Software Quality Management SEM : VII

UNIT-1 INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE QUALITY
Part (2 marks)
1. What is quality?
2. Define software quality?
3. What are the views of quality?
4. Give the definitions of quality?
5. What is quality as per ISO?
6. What are the reasons for software becomes problematical?
7. Give the traditional waterfall lifecycle model.
8. What is hierarchical model?
9. Give the schematic hierarchical view of software quality.
10. Mention the two hierarchical models.
11. What are the areas addressed by McCall’s model?
12. Mention the criteria of quality defined by McCall’s model?
13. Draw the GE model.
14. How the quality criteria interrelate?
15. What are software metrics?
16. What are the types of software metrics?
17. What are the seven criteria for good metrics?
18. What makes a good metric?
19. Define MTTF as a measure of reliability
20. What re the problems with metrics?
21. Give the relationship between criteria and measurable properties.
22. What are problems highlighted by Gilb with the implementation of methods?
23. What are the attributes of Gilb’s work?
24. List out the Gilb’s attributes with its sub attribute.
25. Define Workability.
26. Define availability.
27. Define adaptability.
28. Define Usability.
29. Mention the Dickson’s classification of reliability criteria.
30. What is GQM model?


PART-B
1. What are the views of quality? Explain in Detail the views of quality. (16)
2. Explain the hierarchical model of Quality. (16)
3. a) Plain in detail the GE Model. (08)
b) Plain the Boehm model. (08) CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT
4. Explain how the software quality can be measured and the problems associated
with them. (16)
5. Explain the work of Gilb. (16)
6. Explain in detail GQM model. (16)

Unit-II SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE
Part-A (2 Marks)


1. What are Quality tasks?
2. What is SQA Plan?
3. Define Software quality Assurance (SQA).
4. List out the Teams and Responsibilities.
5. What makes the QA work minimal?
6. What are the factors affecting the SQA effort?
7. List out the seven keys to Leadership.
8. What are the ways of killing the Quality Assurance?
9. What are the Characteristics of Software quality assurance?
10. List out the elements of Documentation.
11. What is SRS?
12. What is SDD?
13. What are the steps in Document Distribution?
14. Draw the Documents Documentation plan worksheet.
15. Give the Reviewing description template.
16. What are action Items?
17. List out the special responsibilities of Technical Review Process.
18. What is software inspection?
19. What is walkthrough?
20. What is audit process?
21. Write short notes on Document verification.

Part-B

1. Explain in detail the Quality tasks and responsibilities. (16)
2. Explain in detail about the Documentation. (16)
3. Explain the Procedural description template and Action items (16)
4. Explain in detail the CMM Compatibility of Reviews and audits. (16)
5. Explain the management review process. (16)
6. Explain the technical review process. (16)
7. Explain the types of reviews. (16)
8. Explain the software inspection process. (16)
9. a) Explain walkthrough process. (8)
b) Explain the Audit process. (8)
10. a) Explain the Document verification and validation. (8)
b) Explain the factors affecting the SQA effort. (8)






Unit- III QUALITY CONTROL AND RELIABILITY CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT

Part A (2 Marks)

1. What are the Ishikawa’s basic tools in software development?
2. What is Fish Bone diagram?
3. Draw the Cause and effect diagram of Design Inspection.
4. What are CASE tools?
5. Define error detection efficiency.
6. Define Defect removal efficiency.
7. Define TDCE and PCE
8. What is Defect Injection
9. What are the activities associated with Defect injection and Removal.
10. Write short notes on Defect Prevention process.
11. What are reliability models?
12. What is Rayleigh mole?
13. Define CDF and PDF in Rayleigh model.
14. What are reliability growth models?
15. What are the classes of Reliability Growth models?
16. List out the Reliability Growth models.
17. Define Jelinski Moranda model.
18. Define LittleWood model
19. Define Goel Okumoto imperfect debugging model.
20. Define Goel Okumoto Nonhomogeneous Poison Process model(NHPP)
21. Define Musa-Okumoto Logarithmic Poison Execution Time model.
22. Define The Delayed S and Inflection S.

Part-B

1. Explain in Detail about the Ishikawa’s basic tools in software development (16)

2. a) Explain in detail about the CASE tools. (8)
b) Explain the Defect Prevention Process. (8)
3. Explain the Defect removal Effectiveness. (16)
4. Explain the Reliability models. (16)
5. Explain in detail about the Rayleigh model. (16)
6. Explain Reliability growth model for quality assessment (16)

Unit-IV QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Part-A (2 marks)


1. What is QMS?
2. Define TQM
3. What is QIP?
4. What are the elements of QMS?
5. What is statistical process control?
6. List out the procedures in a QMS.
7. Mention the SPC techniques and its purposes.
8. Write short notes on principles of Rayleigh model framework
9. Compare the Scenarios of Inspection Effort / Defect Rate.
10. What are the activities of Reliability growth models?
11. What are the key metrics and models? CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT
12. Define Lines of Code
13. Define Halstead’s Software Science.
14. Define Cyclomatic Complexity.
15. Write short notes on Syntactic constructs.
16. Write short notes on Structure metrics.
17. What is customer satisfaction analysis?
18. What are the survey methods of Customer satisfaction?
19. Write down the advantages and disadvantages of survey methods


Part- B
1. Explain in detail the elements of QMS. (16)
2. Explain the Rayleigh model framework. (16)
3. Explain the Reliability Growth models. (16)
4. Explain the complexity metrics and its models (16)
5. Explain Lines of Code and Halstead’s Software Science. (16)
6. Explain in detail the Cyclomatic Complexity (16)
7. a)Explain Syntactic constructs (8)
b) Briefly explain structure metrics. (8)
8. Explain in detail the Customer satisfaction surveys / analysis. (16)

Unit – V QUALITY STANDARDS
Part-A (2 Mark Question)

1. What are the needs for standards?
2. What are the fundamental principles of ISO 9001 standard
3. List out the ISO 9000 series of quality management standards.
4. Mention some of the clauses of ISO9001 standard.
5. What are the three levels of Document control clause?
6. Write short notes on “Seeking Accreditation”
7. Give the structure of ISO9000 – 3 standards
8. What are the key areas of guidance given by ISO 9000-3 standard?
9. What are the requirements of ISO9001?
10. What is the impact of ISO9000
11. What is CMM? Or write short notes on CMM.
12. What are the five levels of SEI CMM?
13. What are the five stages of CMM
14. What is CMMI?
15. Write short notes on Six Sigma concepts.

Part- B

1. Discuss in detail about the needs for standards (16)
2. Explain the ISO9000 series standard (16)
3. Explain the ISO9000-3 standard for software development. (16)
4. Explain in detail the CMM Model (16)
5. Explain the CMMI Model (16)
6. Explain the Six Sigma Concepts. (16)

CS 1020 Software Quality Management Question Bank/2 mark Questions,16 mark Questions

0 comments


ANNA UNIVERSITY CHENNAI
CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT IMPORTANT 2 MARKS AND 16 MARKS
SEMESTER VIII/08
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT CODE: CS 1020 YEAR : IV
SUBJECT NAME: Software Quality Management SEM : VII

UNIT-1 INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE QUALITY
Part (2 marks)
1. What is quality?
2. Define software quality?
3. What are the views of quality?
4. Give the definitions of quality?
5. What is quality as per ISO?
6. What are the reasons for software becomes problematical?
7. Give the traditional waterfall lifecycle model.
8. What is hierarchical model?
9. Give the schematic hierarchical view of software quality.
10. Mention the two hierarchical models.
11. What are the areas addressed by McCall’s model?
12. Mention the criteria of quality defined by McCall’s model?
13. Draw the GE model.
14. How the quality criteria interrelate?
15. What are software metrics?
16. What are the types of software metrics?
17. What are the seven criteria for good metrics?
18. What makes a good metric?
19. Define MTTF as a measure of reliability
20. What re the problems with metrics?
21. Give the relationship between criteria and measurable properties.
22. What are problems highlighted by Gilb with the implementation of methods?
23. What are the attributes of Gilb’s work?
24. List out the Gilb’s attributes with its sub attribute.
25. Define Workability.
26. Define availability.
27. Define adaptability.
28. Define Usability.
29. Mention the Dickson’s classification of reliability criteria.
30. What is GQM model?


PART-B
1. What are the views of quality? Explain in Detail the views of quality. (16)
2. Explain the hierarchical model of Quality. (16)
3. a) Plain in detail the GE Model. (08)
b) Plain the Boehm model. (08) CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT
4. Explain how the software quality can be measured and the problems associated
with them. (16)
5. Explain the work of Gilb. (16)
6. Explain in detail GQM model. (16)

Unit-II SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE
Part-A (2 Marks)


1. What are Quality tasks?
2. What is SQA Plan?
3. Define Software quality Assurance (SQA).
4. List out the Teams and Responsibilities.
5. What makes the QA work minimal?
6. What are the factors affecting the SQA effort?
7. List out the seven keys to Leadership.
8. What are the ways of killing the Quality Assurance?
9. What are the Characteristics of Software quality assurance?
10. List out the elements of Documentation.
11. What is SRS?
12. What is SDD?
13. What are the steps in Document Distribution?
14. Draw the Documents Documentation plan worksheet.
15. Give the Reviewing description template.
16. What are action Items?
17. List out the special responsibilities of Technical Review Process.
18. What is software inspection?
19. What is walkthrough?
20. What is audit process?
21. Write short notes on Document verification.

Part-B

1. Explain in detail the Quality tasks and responsibilities. (16)
2. Explain in detail about the Documentation. (16)
3. Explain the Procedural description template and Action items (16)
4. Explain in detail the CMM Compatibility of Reviews and audits. (16)
5. Explain the management review process. (16)
6. Explain the technical review process. (16)
7. Explain the types of reviews. (16)
8. Explain the software inspection process. (16)
9. a) Explain walkthrough process. (8)
b) Explain the Audit process. (8)
10. a) Explain the Document verification and validation. (8)
b) Explain the factors affecting the SQA effort. (8)






Unit- III QUALITY CONTROL AND RELIABILITY CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT

Part A (2 Marks)

1. What are the Ishikawa’s basic tools in software development?
2. What is Fish Bone diagram?
3. Draw the Cause and effect diagram of Design Inspection.
4. What are CASE tools?
5. Define error detection efficiency.
6. Define Defect removal efficiency.
7. Define TDCE and PCE
8. What is Defect Injection
9. What are the activities associated with Defect injection and Removal.
10. Write short notes on Defect Prevention process.
11. What are reliability models?
12. What is Rayleigh mole?
13. Define CDF and PDF in Rayleigh model.
14. What are reliability growth models?
15. What are the classes of Reliability Growth models?
16. List out the Reliability Growth models.
17. Define Jelinski Moranda model.
18. Define LittleWood model
19. Define Goel Okumoto imperfect debugging model.
20. Define Goel Okumoto Nonhomogeneous Poison Process model(NHPP)
21. Define Musa-Okumoto Logarithmic Poison Execution Time model.
22. Define The Delayed S and Inflection S.

Part-B

1. Explain in Detail about the Ishikawa’s basic tools in software development (16)

2. a) Explain in detail about the CASE tools. (8)
b) Explain the Defect Prevention Process. (8)
3. Explain the Defect removal Effectiveness. (16)
4. Explain the Reliability models. (16)
5. Explain in detail about the Rayleigh model. (16)
6. Explain Reliability growth model for quality assessment (16)

Unit-IV QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Part-A (2 marks)


1. What is QMS?
2. Define TQM
3. What is QIP?
4. What are the elements of QMS?
5. What is statistical process control?
6. List out the procedures in a QMS.
7. Mention the SPC techniques and its purposes.
8. Write short notes on principles of Rayleigh model framework
9. Compare the Scenarios of Inspection Effort / Defect Rate.
10. What are the activities of Reliability growth models?
11. What are the key metrics and models? CS1020 SOFTWARE QUALITY MANAGEMENT
12. Define Lines of Code
13. Define Halstead’s Software Science.
14. Define Cyclomatic Complexity.
15. Write short notes on Syntactic constructs.
16. Write short notes on Structure metrics.
17. What is customer satisfaction analysis?
18. What are the survey methods of Customer satisfaction?
19. Write down the advantages and disadvantages of survey methods


Part- B
1. Explain in detail the elements of QMS. (16)
2. Explain the Rayleigh model framework. (16)
3. Explain the Reliability Growth models. (16)
4. Explain the complexity metrics and its models (16)
5. Explain Lines of Code and Halstead’s Software Science. (16)
6. Explain in detail the Cyclomatic Complexity (16)
7. a)Explain Syntactic constructs (8)
b) Briefly explain structure metrics. (8)
8. Explain in detail the Customer satisfaction surveys / analysis. (16)

Unit – V QUALITY STANDARDS
Part-A (2 Mark Question)

1. What are the needs for standards?
2. What are the fundamental principles of ISO 9001 standard
3. List out the ISO 9000 series of quality management standards.
4. Mention some of the clauses of ISO9001 standard.
5. What are the three levels of Document control clause?
6. Write short notes on “Seeking Accreditation”
7. Give the structure of ISO9000 – 3 standards
8. What are the key areas of guidance given by ISO 9000-3 standard?
9. What are the requirements of ISO9001?
10. What is the impact of ISO9000
11. What is CMM? Or write short notes on CMM.
12. What are the five levels of SEI CMM?
13. What are the five stages of CMM
14. What is CMMI?
15. Write short notes on Six Sigma concepts.

Part- B

1. Discuss in detail about the needs for standards (16)
2. Explain the ISO9000 series standard (16)
3. Explain the ISO9000-3 standard for software development. (16)
4. Explain in detail the CMM Model (16)
5. Explain the CMMI Model (16)
6. Explain the Six Sigma Concepts. (16)

Wednesday, March 17, 2010

APTITUDE TEST TCS PLACEMNET PAPER 2010 WITH ANSWER

0 comments

1)APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70 ; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. no negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning:(30 question : 40 minutes)
English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)

Analytical reasoning

1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.

2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
Ans: 25.

3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.

4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph

5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.
Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?

Ans: Today is Tuesday

tcs placement paper,Placement paper,Aptitude questions

APTITUDE TEST TCS PLACEMNET PAPER 2010 WITH ANSWER

0 comments

1)APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70 ; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. no negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning:(30 question : 40 minutes)
English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)

Analytical reasoning

1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.

2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
Ans: 25.

3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.

4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph

5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.
Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?

Ans: Today is Tuesday

tcs placement paper,Placement paper,Aptitude questions

Monday, March 15, 2010

LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT QUESTION PAPER

0 comments

JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD
MBA-III Semester Regular Examinations February -2010
LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT
Time:3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal marks
- - -
1. Discuss the goal of a supply chain and explain the impact of supply chain decisions
on the success of a firm.
2. How can the full set of logistical and cross-functional drivers be used to create
strategic fit for a PC manufacturer targeting both time sensitive and price-conscious
customers?
3. Why is it important to consider uncertainty when evaluating supply chain design
decisions?
4. What role does forecasting play in the supply chain? Identify the components of
demand forecast.
5. What is the difference between lot-sized-based and volume based quantity
discounts? When are quantity discounts justified in a supply chain?
6. Discuss key drivers that may be used to their transportation. How does tailoring
help?
7. What are the four possible strategies in setting up global integrated logistics
channels and how does each one operate?
8. What is a channel distribution? How are logistics and marketing mutually
dependent on each other in making sure that the channel operates efficiently and
effectively?

LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT QUESTION PAPER

0 comments

JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD
MBA-III Semester Regular Examinations February -2010
LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT
Time:3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal marks
- - -
1. Discuss the goal of a supply chain and explain the impact of supply chain decisions
on the success of a firm.
2. How can the full set of logistical and cross-functional drivers be used to create
strategic fit for a PC manufacturer targeting both time sensitive and price-conscious
customers?
3. Why is it important to consider uncertainty when evaluating supply chain design
decisions?
4. What role does forecasting play in the supply chain? Identify the components of
demand forecast.
5. What is the difference between lot-sized-based and volume based quantity
discounts? When are quantity discounts justified in a supply chain?
6. Discuss key drivers that may be used to their transportation. How does tailoring
help?
7. What are the four possible strategies in setting up global integrated logistics
channels and how does each one operate?
8. What is a channel distribution? How are logistics and marketing mutually
dependent on each other in making sure that the channel operates efficiently and
effectively?

2008 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering EN 04 104-B—ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper

0 comments

2008 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering FIRST AND SECOND SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper
FIRST AND SECOND SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE
EXAMINATION, JUNE 2008
Chemistry
EN 04 104-B—ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (B)
(For ME, CE, PE, AM)
[2004 admissions!
Time : Three Hours

Part A Answer all the questions.(8 x 5 = 40 marks)

I. (a) Mention any two types of lime and give their composition and uses.
(b) Define roasting and calcination.
(c) Why is plasticizer used during moulding of plastics ?
(d) Mention the differences between soda-base and lime-base greases.
(e) Write a note on white metals, te Gibb's phase rule and explain the terms involved.
(g) "Corrosion products can act as a protective layer". Explain this term with the help of pilling Bedworth rule.
(h) What is fly ash ? Describe its range of composition as found in different investigations.


Part B:[4 x 15 = 60 marks]
II. (A) Discuss the softening treatment methods of water. Explain the requirements of boiler feed water. (15 marks)
OR
(B) Write notes on :
(a) Reinforced concrete.
(b) Bullet resistant glass.
(c) Bessemer process.
(3 x 5 = 15 marks)
.

III. (A) (a) Discuss the process of extrusion moulding and blow moulding, (8 marks)
(b) Write a note on co-ordination polymerisation. (7 marks)

Or

(B) (a) Give an account of selection of lubricant for cutting operations. (8 marks)
(b) Fatty oils are no longer used as lubricants. Why ? (7 marks)


IV. (A) (a) Define phase and component. Describe iron-carbon system with a suitable diagram.
(8 marks)
(b) Describe the application of phase rule in the study of binary systemforming compound with congruent melting point.

OR

(B) (a) Draw a phase diagram for a binary alloy system with simple eutectic and explain on the basis of phase rule.
(8 marks)
(b) Draw and explain the important features of phase diagram of water system. (7 marks)

V. (A) (a) Explain the mechanism of electrochemical corrosion. • (7 marks)
(b) Write the application of surface conversion. (8 marks)

OR

(B) (a) What are the necessities of protective coatings ? Explain the mechanism and application of anodized oxide coating.
(9 marks)
(b) Write a note on soil pollution. (6 marks)

2008 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering EN 04 104-B—ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper

0 comments

2008 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering FIRST AND SECOND SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper
FIRST AND SECOND SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE
EXAMINATION, JUNE 2008
Chemistry
EN 04 104-B—ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (B)
(For ME, CE, PE, AM)
[2004 admissions!
Time : Three Hours

Part A Answer all the questions.(8 x 5 = 40 marks)

I. (a) Mention any two types of lime and give their composition and uses.
(b) Define roasting and calcination.
(c) Why is plasticizer used during moulding of plastics ?
(d) Mention the differences between soda-base and lime-base greases.
(e) Write a note on white metals, te Gibb's phase rule and explain the terms involved.
(g) "Corrosion products can act as a protective layer". Explain this term with the help of pilling Bedworth rule.
(h) What is fly ash ? Describe its range of composition as found in different investigations.


Part B:[4 x 15 = 60 marks]
II. (A) Discuss the softening treatment methods of water. Explain the requirements of boiler feed water. (15 marks)
OR
(B) Write notes on :
(a) Reinforced concrete.
(b) Bullet resistant glass.
(c) Bessemer process.
(3 x 5 = 15 marks)
.

III. (A) (a) Discuss the process of extrusion moulding and blow moulding, (8 marks)
(b) Write a note on co-ordination polymerisation. (7 marks)

Or

(B) (a) Give an account of selection of lubricant for cutting operations. (8 marks)
(b) Fatty oils are no longer used as lubricants. Why ? (7 marks)


IV. (A) (a) Define phase and component. Describe iron-carbon system with a suitable diagram.
(8 marks)
(b) Describe the application of phase rule in the study of binary systemforming compound with congruent melting point.

OR

(B) (a) Draw a phase diagram for a binary alloy system with simple eutectic and explain on the basis of phase rule.
(8 marks)
(b) Draw and explain the important features of phase diagram of water system. (7 marks)

V. (A) (a) Explain the mechanism of electrochemical corrosion. • (7 marks)
(b) Write the application of surface conversion. (8 marks)

OR

(B) (a) What are the necessities of protective coatings ? Explain the mechanism and application of anodized oxide coating.
(9 marks)
(b) Write a note on soil pollution. (6 marks)

2007 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION Question paper

0 comments

2007 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION Question paper

THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION
DECEMBER 2007

ME/AM 04 303—FLUID MECHANICS
(2004 Admissions)
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 100 Marks
Answer all questions.
1.Part A: (8*5=40 marks)
I. (a) Difference between Newtonian fluids and non-Newtonian fluids.
(b) Differentiate between absolute and gauge pressure.
(c) Differentiate between (i) streamline (ii) streakline (iii) stream tubes.
(d) Explain about velocity correction factor. {§) Explain about critical Reynold's number. Which is the true critical Reynold's number ?
(f) Differentiate between Eulerian and Lagrangian approaches of fluid flow.
(g) Explain Prandtl's mixing length concept, (h) Explain about drag and life.

Part B:(4*15=60 marks)
H. (a) The MHBrVc rlereity of a fluid is 1.26 and its dynamic viscosity is 1.50 kg/ms. Calculate its
(i) specific weight (ii) kinematic viscosity.
(b) Two discs of 20 cm diameter are placed 1mm apart and gap is filled with an oil of viscosity 8 kg/ms.
Determine power required to rotate upper disc at 600 r.p.m. while holding the lower one stationary.
Or
III. (a) Derive differential equation of pressure for static fluid. (7 marks)
(b) Find the pressure represented by a column of (i) 10 cm of water (ii) 5 cm of oil of relative density .75
(iii) 2 cm of mercury. (8 marks)

IV. (a) Derive Bernoulli's Equation by clearly stating its assumptions. (10 marks)
Explain limitations of Bernoulli's' theorem. (5 marks)
Or
V. (a). Derive the equation for discharge in a venturimeter. (7 marks)
(b) A pitot tube is mounted on an airplane tp indicate speed of plane relative to wind. What differential pressure in kPa will instrument register when plane is travelling at a speed of 200 km/hr in a wind of 60 km/hr the blowing against the direction of plane. (8 marks)VI. (a) Derive Darcy Weibach equation. (8 marks)(b) Explain about minor losses. (7 marks)


VII. The velocity of a nozzle of length / along centerliner is v = 2* 1 -— I where v is the velocity in vol sec, x is the distance from inlet to nozzle and t is the time in seconds. Find convective acceleration, local acceleration and total acceleration when t = 3 sees, x = .5m and / = .8m. (15 marks)
VIII. (a) Describe, boundary layer growth on a flat plate held parallel to flow. (7 marks)

(b) A 1.8 m wide and 5 m long plate moves through stationary air of density 1.22 kg/m3 and viscosity 1.8 x 10-4 poise at a velocity of 1.75 m/s parallel to its length. Determine drag force on one side of plate by assuming (i) Laminar flow (ii) Turbulent flow. (8 marks)
Or
IX. A 20 km/hr wind blows over a flat pl&te. If the density and kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.5 x 10""6 m2/sec. Find force per metre width of the plate. Also estimate thickness of boundary layer at trailing edge ? (15 marks)

2007 Calicut University Electrical and Electronics Engineering FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper

0 comments

2007 Calicut University Electrical and Electronics Engineering FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper
FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2007
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
EE 2K 503/PTEE 2K 3Q4—ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELD (THEORY) Time : Three Hours

Maximum : 100 Marks

1.Part A: (8*5=40 marks)
(a) Derive an expression for energy stored in a magnetic field.
(b} Derive the capacitance of an Isolated sphere. Explain the steps.
(c) What is a magnetic dipole ? Explain with a sketch.
(d)_ Explain the types of transmission lines and their applications.-
(e) What are plane waves, uniform plane waves and plane wave front ? Explain.
(f) Differentiate Elliptical from circular polarization. Explain their significance.
(g) Derive standard wave equations from Maxwell's equations.
(h) explain the concept of brewster angle.obtain an expression for it

Part B:(4*15=60 marks)
(ii)(a) (i) Derive the potential frictions for sinusoidal oscillations. (8 marks)
(ii) State and derive stokes theorem and divergence theorem. (7 marks)

Or

(M (ii Define Dipole. Obtain an expression for the resultant potential and electric field. (8 marks)
iiExpla in spherical to Cartesian co-ordinates transformation. Obtain the relation. (7 marks)

III. (a) (ty Derive an expression for Inductance of solenoid. (8 marks)
(iiV Derive expressions for conduction current and displacement current densities. r> (7 marks)

Or

(b) (i) Derive an expression for Inductance of toroid. • (8 marks)
(ii) Differentiate Self Inductance from Mutual Inductance. (7 marks)


IV. (a) State and derive poynting theorem. Also derive poynting vector for time varying fields.
Explain its applications.

or

(b) (i) Derive an equation that would describe an ellipse for elliptical polarization,
(ii) Obtain Maxwell's equations in differential form.

V. (a) (i) Derive the equations of smith chart.
(ii) Explain the potential apphcations of Smith chart.

Or

(b) (i) Compare the characteristics of co-axial line with 2 wire transmission line,
(ii) Define and explain the significances of:
1 Phase velocity.
2 Group velocity.
3 Characteristic Impedance.

2007 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION Question paper

0 comments

2007 Calicut University Mechanical Engineering THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION Question paper

THIRD SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION
DECEMBER 2007

ME/AM 04 303—FLUID MECHANICS
(2004 Admissions)
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 100 Marks
Answer all questions.
1.Part A: (8*5=40 marks)
I. (a) Difference between Newtonian fluids and non-Newtonian fluids.
(b) Differentiate between absolute and gauge pressure.
(c) Differentiate between (i) streamline (ii) streakline (iii) stream tubes.
(d) Explain about velocity correction factor. {§) Explain about critical Reynold's number. Which is the true critical Reynold's number ?
(f) Differentiate between Eulerian and Lagrangian approaches of fluid flow.
(g) Explain Prandtl's mixing length concept, (h) Explain about drag and life.

Part B:(4*15=60 marks)
H. (a) The MHBrVc rlereity of a fluid is 1.26 and its dynamic viscosity is 1.50 kg/ms. Calculate its
(i) specific weight (ii) kinematic viscosity.
(b) Two discs of 20 cm diameter are placed 1mm apart and gap is filled with an oil of viscosity 8 kg/ms.
Determine power required to rotate upper disc at 600 r.p.m. while holding the lower one stationary.
Or
III. (a) Derive differential equation of pressure for static fluid. (7 marks)
(b) Find the pressure represented by a column of (i) 10 cm of water (ii) 5 cm of oil of relative density .75
(iii) 2 cm of mercury. (8 marks)

IV. (a) Derive Bernoulli's Equation by clearly stating its assumptions. (10 marks)
Explain limitations of Bernoulli's' theorem. (5 marks)
Or
V. (a). Derive the equation for discharge in a venturimeter. (7 marks)
(b) A pitot tube is mounted on an airplane tp indicate speed of plane relative to wind. What differential pressure in kPa will instrument register when plane is travelling at a speed of 200 km/hr in a wind of 60 km/hr the blowing against the direction of plane. (8 marks)VI. (a) Derive Darcy Weibach equation. (8 marks)(b) Explain about minor losses. (7 marks)


VII. The velocity of a nozzle of length / along centerliner is v = 2* 1 -— I where v is the velocity in vol sec, x is the distance from inlet to nozzle and t is the time in seconds. Find convective acceleration, local acceleration and total acceleration when t = 3 sees, x = .5m and / = .8m. (15 marks)
VIII. (a) Describe, boundary layer growth on a flat plate held parallel to flow. (7 marks)

(b) A 1.8 m wide and 5 m long plate moves through stationary air of density 1.22 kg/m3 and viscosity 1.8 x 10-4 poise at a velocity of 1.75 m/s parallel to its length. Determine drag force on one side of plate by assuming (i) Laminar flow (ii) Turbulent flow. (8 marks)
Or
IX. A 20 km/hr wind blows over a flat pl&te. If the density and kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.5 x 10""6 m2/sec. Find force per metre width of the plate. Also estimate thickness of boundary layer at trailing edge ? (15 marks)

2007 Calicut University Electrical and Electronics Engineering FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper

0 comments

2007 Calicut University Electrical and Electronics Engineering FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, Question paper
FIFTH SEMESTER B.TECH. (ENGINEERING) DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2007
Electrical and Electronics Engineering
EE 2K 503/PTEE 2K 3Q4—ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELD (THEORY) Time : Three Hours

Maximum : 100 Marks

1.Part A: (8*5=40 marks)
(a) Derive an expression for energy stored in a magnetic field.
(b} Derive the capacitance of an Isolated sphere. Explain the steps.
(c) What is a magnetic dipole ? Explain with a sketch.
(d)_ Explain the types of transmission lines and their applications.-
(e) What are plane waves, uniform plane waves and plane wave front ? Explain.
(f) Differentiate Elliptical from circular polarization. Explain their significance.
(g) Derive standard wave equations from Maxwell's equations.
(h) explain the concept of brewster angle.obtain an expression for it

Part B:(4*15=60 marks)
(ii)(a) (i) Derive the potential frictions for sinusoidal oscillations. (8 marks)
(ii) State and derive stokes theorem and divergence theorem. (7 marks)

Or

(M (ii Define Dipole. Obtain an expression for the resultant potential and electric field. (8 marks)
iiExpla in spherical to Cartesian co-ordinates transformation. Obtain the relation. (7 marks)

III. (a) (ty Derive an expression for Inductance of solenoid. (8 marks)
(iiV Derive expressions for conduction current and displacement current densities. r> (7 marks)

Or

(b) (i) Derive an expression for Inductance of toroid. • (8 marks)
(ii) Differentiate Self Inductance from Mutual Inductance. (7 marks)


IV. (a) State and derive poynting theorem. Also derive poynting vector for time varying fields.
Explain its applications.

or

(b) (i) Derive an equation that would describe an ellipse for elliptical polarization,
(ii) Obtain Maxwell's equations in differential form.

V. (a) (i) Derive the equations of smith chart.
(ii) Explain the potential apphcations of Smith chart.

Or

(b) (i) Compare the characteristics of co-axial line with 2 wire transmission line,
(ii) Define and explain the significances of:
1 Phase velocity.
2 Group velocity.
3 Characteristic Impedance.

 

Anna University Syllabus and Results | Copyright 2009 Tüm Hakları Saklıdır | Blogger Template by GoogleBoy ve anakafa | Sponsored by Noow!